1:Which secretion system is responsible for the secretion of Exotoxin A by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A:Type I
B:Type II
C:Type III
D:Type IV
Correct Answer:Option B
2:Vibrio cholera toxin acts by
A:Glycosylate GTP binding protein
B:Elevated intracellular cGMP
C:ADP ribosylation of G protein
D:Inhibition of cAMP
Answer:Option C
3:Preferred test to confirm H.pylori eradication is
A:Culture
B:Urea breath test
C:Rapid urease test
D:Antibody detection
Answer:Option B
4:Colicin typing is done for
A:S.dysenteriae
B:S.flexneri
C:S.boydii
D:S.sonnei
Answer:Option D
5:Screening for chronic carrier state following S.typhi infection is carried out by:
A:Widal test
B:Demonstrating Vi antigen
C:Detection of Vi antibodies
D:Nested PCR of serum sample
Answer:Option C
6:XDR TB is defined as
A:Resistance to isoniazid and rifampicin irrespective of resistance to any other drug
B:Resistance to more than one drug other than co resistance to INH and rifampicin
C:MDR TB that also is resistant to fluoroquinolones and at least one injectable second-line drugs
D:MDR TB that is resistant to either one of the injectable second line drugs or fluoroquinolones Answer:Option C
7:Choose the correct statement about the tests used for diagnosis of syphilis
A:RPR and USR tests do not require a microscope to detect flocculation
B:In TPPA, tanned RBCs are coated with T.pallidum antigens
C:TPHA fails to detect CSF antibodies
D:Non treponemal tests are recommended to monitor treatment response
Answer:Option D
8:True about Leptospira interrogans:
A:It is a facultative anaerobe
B:Semisolid Fletcher's medium is useful in cultivating this bacterium
C:Levaditi staining is used to demonstrate L.interrogans
D:Serovar specific PCR tests are available
Answer:- Option B
9:Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes D-K causes:
A:Genital chlamydiasis
B:Interstitial pneumonia
C:Atherosclerosis
D:Lymphogranuloma venereum
Answer:Option A
10:Choose the true statement regarding Mycoplasma pneumoniae:
A:Obligate intracellular parasites
B:Mycoplasmas are L forms
C:Lung biopsy specimen typically lacks signs of inflammation
D:Hydrogen peroxide plays a major role in pathogenesis
Answer:Option D
11:All the following are true with regards to Coxiella burnetii EXCEPT:
A:Most common mode of transmission is by aerosol route
B:Endocarditis is a major feature of chronic Q fever
C:Anti-phase II IgG titre of > 6400 is diagnostic of chronic Q fever
D:Doxycycline + hydroxychoroquine is used for treating Q fever
Answer:Option C
12:Transovarian transmission in vectors is seen in:
A:-Scrub typhus
B:Endemic typhus
C:Epidemic typhus
D:Trench fever
Answer:Option A
13:-Hair perforation test is positive in
A:-Trichophyton violaceum
B:-Trichophyton mentagrophytes
C:-Trichophyton audouinii
D:-Trichophyton schoenleinii
Answer:- Option-B
14:Mode of infection of Ascaris lumbricoides
A:Penetration of skin by larva
B:Autoinfection
C:Ingestion of eggs
D:Ingestion of larva
Answer:Option C
15:True about microfilariae of Wuchereria bancrofti
A:Sheathed, nuclei at the tail tip
B:Sheathed, no nuclei at tail tip
C:Unsheathed, no nuclei at tail tip
D:Unsheathed and nuclei at tail tip
Answer:Option B
16:Dimorphic fungi causing subcutaneous mycosis
A:Phialophora verrucosa
B:Sporothrix schenckii
C:Fonsecaea pedrosoi
D:Cladosporium carrionii
Answer:Option B
17:Subtype of human immunodeficiency virus 1 more common in India.
A:Subtype A
B:Subtype B
C:Subtype C
D:Subtype D
Answer:Option C
18:Skin test for diagnosis of hydatid cyst
A:Casoni's test
B:Schick test
C:Dick test
D:Frei test
Answer:Option A
19:Immune complex mediated nephritis is seen in chronic infection with
A:Plasmodium malariae
B:Plasmodium ovale
C:Plasmodium vivax
D:Plasmodium falciparum
Answer: Option A
20:All are true about super carriers except
A:Highly infectious
B:High level of HBsAg, HBe Ag
C:Low level of HBsAg, no HBeAg
D:High level of HBV DNA, DNA polymerase
Answer:Option C
21:Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis
A:Brain
B:Lung
C:Spleen
D:Liver
Answer:Option D
22:All are true about Histoplasma capsulatum var.duboisii except
A:Causes African histoplasmosis
B:Skin and bone involvement mainly
C:Yeast cells size 7-15 μm
D:Yeast cell size 2-4 μm
Answer:Option D
23:Genotype of Hepatitis C Virus with poor response to treatment
A:Genotype 1b
B:Genotype 1a
C:Genotype 2
D:Genotype 3
Answer:Option A
24:Highest mortality in pregnancy is associated with
A:Hepatitis A
B:Hepatitis B
C:Hepatitis E
D:Hepatitis D
Answer: Option C
25:All are true about Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis except
A:Strains similar to oral polio virus
B:Seen in places where OPV is used extensively
C:Common serotype Sabin type 3
D:High level genetic divergence from OPV strain
Answer:Option D
26:True about Antigenic drift
A:Point mutation
B:Results in pandemics
C:Occurs in influenza A virus
D:Occurs every 10-20 years
Answer:Option A
27:Koplik's spots are pathognomonic of
A:Measles
B:Mumps
C:Rubella
D:Chicken pox
Answer:Option A
28:Nipah virus belongs to
A:Paramyxovirus
B:Orthomyxovirus
C:Picorna virus
D:Enterovirus
Answer: Option A
29:All are true about Negri bodies except
A:Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions
B:Common in cerebellum, hippocampus
C:2-10 μ size
D:Its absence rule out diagnosis of Rabies
Answer:Option D
30:Rabies vaccine is prepared from
A:Street virus
B:Fixed virus
C:-Live virus
D:Wild virus
Answer: Option B
31:All are human prion disease except
A:Kuru
B:Classical Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
C:Sub acute sclerosing panencephalitis
D:Straussler-Scheinker syndrome
Answer:Option C
32:All are Epstein Barr Virus associated malignancy except
A:Burkitt's lymphoma
B:Hodgkin's lymphoma
C:Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
D:Hepatocellular carcinoma
Answer:Option D
33:All are true about chickenpox in pregnancy except
A:Not terratogenic
B:Mothers at risk of varicella pneumonia
C:Congenital infection more in 2nd half
D:Congenital infections rare in 1st half
Answer:Option A
34:Characteristic cytopathic effect of herpes simplex
A:Diffuse roundening and ballooning
B:Syncitium or multinucleated giant cells
C:Crenation and degeneration
D:Cytoplasmic vacoulation
Answer:Option A
35:Which serotype of Dengue virus is more dangerous?
A:Serotype 1
B:Serotype 2
C:Serotype 3
D:Serotype 4
Answer: Option B
36:All the following are the genotypes of chikungunea virus except
A:West African
B:East African
C:Asian
D:North American
Answer: Option D
37:Commonest clinical presentation of mumps
A:Aseptic meningitis
B:Bilateral parotitis
C:Epididymo orchitis
D:Pancreatitis Correct
Answer:Option B
38:Suckling mouse can be used for viral isolation of
A:Coxsackie virus
B:Mumps virus
C:Measles virus
D:Influenza virus
Answer: Option A
39:All are true about chicken pox vaccine except
A:Live vaccine
B:One dose for adults
C:Oka strain given
D:2 doses for children
Answer:Option B
40:Germ tube test is positive for
A:Candida albicans
B:Candida glabrata
C:Candida krusei
D:Candida tropicalis
Answer: Option A
41:Following are true about Cryptococcus except
A:Serotypes of Cryptococcus - A, B, C, D
B:C.neoformans seen in pigeon droppings
C:Capsule is main virulence factor
D:C.neoformans inhabits in eucalyptus tree
Answer:Option D
42:Virus producing haemorrhagic fever
A:Kyasanur forest disease virus
B:Japanese B.encephalitis virus
C:Chandipura virus
D:West Nile virus
Answer:- Option A
43:All the tests listed below are useful in differentiating Streptococcus pneumoniae from Viridans streptococciexcept
A:Bacitracin sensitivity
B:Bile solubility
C:Inulin fermentation
D:Optochin sensitivity
Answer:Option A
44:Crystal violet blood agar is a selective medium for which bacterium?
A:Streptococcus pyogenes
B:Bacillus cereus
C:Bacteroides fragilis
D:Haemophilus ducreyi
Answer:Option A
45:Resistance in Streptococcus pneumonia against β lactams is due to
A:Presence of penicillinase enzymes
B:Efflux pumps
C:Altered penicillin binding proteins
D:Decreased permeability across cell wall
Answer:Option C
46:Which among the following serogroup of Neisseria menigitidis is not associated with invasive disease?
A:A
B:B
C:C
D:D
Answer:Option D
47:Auxotyping is done for
A:-Meningococci
B:-Streptococci
C:Gonococci
D:Enterococci
Answer:Option C
48:Shanghai fever is caused by
A:Burkholderia cepacia
B:Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
C:Pseudomonas auruginosa
D:Corynebacterium jeikeium
Answer:Option C
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